1. The sign of imminent delivery that occurs when the presenting part of the baby first bulges from the vaginal opening is called:
a) Staining
b) A bloody show
c) Placenta previa
d) Crowning
2. The most common cause of seizures in pediatric patients is:
a) Fever
b) Epilepsy
c) Head injuries
d) Shock
3. What is the preferred position for a patient in hypovolemic shock?
a) Supine with head elevated
b) Left lateral position
c) Head below and feet above the heart
d) Sniffing position
4. The most common injuries sustained by children who are struck by a car while riding a bike are:
a) Leg, hand, and back
b) Head, spinal, and abdominal
c) Head, spinal, and lower extremity
5. Discoloration around the eyes is called:
a) Raccoon eyes
b) Bleeding from the ears
c) Cerebrospinal fluid leakage
d) Profuse bleeding from the head
6. After taking standard precautions, the first care step in treating skull fractures and brain injuries is:
a) Apply a rigid collar
b) Control bleeding
c) Provide manual stabilization of the head
d) Transport the patient immediately
7. The most common and reliable sign of spinal cord injury in conscious patients is:
a) Battle's sign
b) Pupil dilation
c) Raccoon eyes
d) Paralysis of the extremities
8. For EMTs responding to calls involving multiple-trauma patients, the first priority is:
a) Scene safety
b) Airway control
c) Breathing assessment
d) In-line spinal immobilization
9. To rapidly cool a patient with a hyperthermic emergency, apply ice packs to the neck, groin, and:
a) Wrists
b) Axilla (armpits)
c) Knees
d) Ankles
10. All the following are signs and symptoms you might expect to find in a heat emergency patient with hot, dry, or moist skin EXCEPT:
a) Rapid, shallow breathing
b) Generalized weakness
c) Dilated pupils
d) Heavy perspiration
11. If crowning occurs during transport:
a) Prepare to deliver the baby, and have your driver expedite transport
b) Continue transport and request an ALS rendezvous
c) Stop the ambulance, and have your partner help prepare for delivery
d) Have the mother hold her legs tightly together to delay delivery
12. You should clamp and cut the umbilical cord:
a) As soon as the baby is delivered
b) Only if it is wrapped around the baby’s neck
13. To control vaginal bleeding after birth:
a) Massage the uterus
b) Have the mother squeeze her legs together
c) Pack the vagina with gauze dressings
d) Don’t allow the mother to nurse the baby
14. During a normal pregnancy, the baby grows in the mother’s:
a) Cervix
b) Vagina
c) Uterus
d) Placenta
15. The organ composed of both maternal and fetal tissues that serves as an exchange area between mother and fetus is the:
a) Cervix
b) Vagina
c) Uterus
d) Placenta
16. The fetus "floats" in a "bag of waters" containing:
a) Placental fluid
b) Amniotic fluid
c) Umbilical fluid
d) CSF fluid
17. A chest injury where the skin is not broken is called a(n):
a) Penetrating injury
b) Critical injury
c) Open injury
d) Closed injury
18. A type of closed injury in which two or more consecutive ribs are fractured in two or more places is called:
a) Commotio cordis
b) Cutaneous layer injury
c) Tension pneumothorax
d) Flail chest
19. The medical term for any dressing that forms an airtight seal is a(n):
a) Occlusive dressing
b) Flutter-valve dressing
c) Universal dressing
d) Self-adherent dressing
20. Bones broken in several places are classified as:
a) Angulated fractures
b) Comminuted fractures
c) Greenstick fractures
d) Dislocated fractures
22. The skin color that indicates poor circulation is:
a) Pale
b) Mottled
c) Flushed
d) Jaundiced
23. When checking pupils, an EMT should look for all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Size
b) Equality
c) Reactivity
d) Color
24. For unstable patients, an EMT should take vital signs every:
a) 20 minutes
b) 15 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 5 minutes
25. The patient’s statement, “I feel like I just can’t get enough air when I breathe,” relates to what letter of the SAMPLE mnemonic?
a) S
b) A
c) M
d) P
26. Difficulty speaking, sagging facial muscles, and one-sided weakness indicate:
a) Hypoglycemia
b) Epilepsy
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Stroke
27. Signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Itching
b) Increased appetite
c) Decreased blood pressure
d) Watery eyes
28. Anaphylaxis is differentiated from an allergic reaction by:
a) Respiratory distress
b) Hives
c) Itching
d) Swelling
29. The most difficult type of bleeding to control is:
a) Arterial bleeding
b) Venous bleeding
c) Capillary bleeding
d) Oozing bleeding
30. All the following are signs of shock EXCEPT:
a) Altered mental status
b) Warm, dry skin
c) Rapid pulse
d) Low blood pressure
36. The portion of the assessment designed to identify and treat immediately life-threatening conditions is called:
a) Priority assessment
b) Ongoing assessment
c) Detailed assessment
d) Primary assessment
37. Actions taken to correct a patient's problems are known as:
a) ABCs
b) AVPU
c) Interventions
d) Primary assessment
38. In any patient with suspected spinal injury, an EMT should apply manual stabilization:
a) After the primary assessment
b) After the SAMPLE history
c) On first contact with the patient
d) En route to the hospital
39. You should obtain the first vital signs:
a) During the scene size-up
b) During the focused history and physical exam
c) After the SAMPLE history
d) During the initial assessment
40. In case of shock or later stages of blood loss, an EMT would expect the pulse to be:
a) Rapid, strong, and bounding
b) Rapid and thready
c) Slow
d) Absent
41. The first pulse taken by an EMT on patients one year and older is the:
a) Carotid pulse
b) Radial pulse
c) Femoral pulse
d) Pedis dorsalis pulse
42. A person is considered febrile if he has a temperature greater than:
a) 98.6°F
b) 100°F
c) 101°F
d) 99°F
43. The respiratory sound that indicates a patient might need suctioning is:
a) Crowing
b) Wheezing
c) Snoring
d) Gurgling
44. The medical term that refers to "both sides" of something is:
a) Ventral
b) Bilateral
c) Superior
d) Unilateral
45. The term that describes a patient transported in the seated position is:
a) The Fowler position
b) The prone position
c) The position of comfort
d) The supine position
46. The principal organ of the renal system is the:
a) Ureters
b) Nephron
c) Kidney
d) Bladder
47. The division of the spinal column most prone to injury because it is not supported by another part of the skeleton is the:
a) Thoracic
b) Lumbar
c) Sacral
d) Coccyx
48. The chamber that pumps oxygen-rich blood out of the heart for distribution to the rest of the body is the:
a) Left atrium
b) Left ventricle
c) Right atrium
d) Right ventricle
49. After taking standard precautions, the first care step in treating skull fractures and brain injuries is to:
a) Apply a rigid collar
b) Control bleeding
c) Provide manual stabilization
d) Transport the patient immediately
50. The most common and reliable sign of spinal cord injury in conscious patients is:
a) Battle's sign
b) Pupil dilation
c) Raccoon's eyes
d) Paralysis of the extremities
51. The first priority for EMTs responding to calls involving multiple-trauma patients is:
a) Scene safety
b) Airway control
c) Breathing assessment
d) In-line spinal immobilization
81. To rapidly cool a patient with a hyperthermic emergency, apply ice:
a) To the chest and back
b) To the groin and neck
c) Over the entire body
d) To the hands and feet
48. On most EMT runs, the majority of the history of the present illness for a child is usually gathered from the:
a) Family physician
b) Child
c) Parents
d) Medical dispatcher
49. Which of the following would you be LEAST likely to obtain with an unresponsive medical patient?
a) Chief complaint
b) Blood pressure
c) Condition of pupils
d) Pulse
50. Just how often to conduct the reassessment is determined by the:
a) Location of the injury
b) Initial assessment
c) Patient's condition
d) Number of interventions performed
51. All of the following are signs of inadequate breathing EXCEPT:
a) Present and equal breath sounds
b) Shallow respirations
c) Cyanotic skin color
d) Use of accessory muscles
33. The scene size-up should take place:
a) Only at the beginning of a call
b) At the beginning and throughout the entire call
c) At the beginning and at the end of the call
d) After life-threatening conditions have been corrected
34. If you observe potential signs of violence at a scene, your first action should generally be to:
a) Stabilize the patient
b) Retreat to a position of safety
c) Contact medical direction
d) Turn on the ambulance siren and lights
35. During scene size-up at a multiple-vehicle crash, it is important to determine the number of patients because:
a) Additional EMS resources may need to be called if there are more patients than the first crew can handle
b) Run reports are required for each patient
c) ALS must be called if there are more than two patients
d) The media must be given accurate information
26. Your 24-year-old female patient has fallen from her roof and is unconscious. The best method to open her airway is the:
a) Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver
b) Jaw-thrust maneuver
c) Head-tilt, neck-lift maneuver
d) Tongue-jaw lift maneuver
27. If you do not have the proper size oropharyngeal airway to fit your patient:
a) Use the next larger size
b) Use the next smaller size
c) Do not use one
d) Use either a smaller or a larger one
28. Which of the following is TRUE when suctioning a patient’s airway?
a) Never suction for longer than one minute
b) Suction only as the catheter is going into the mouth
c) BSI precautions are not necessary unless blood is seen
d) Suction longer than 15 seconds if the patient continues to vomit
29. One method of determining the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway is by:
a) Comparing it to the diameter of the patient’s little finger
b) Measuring from the corner of the patient’s mouth to the earlobe
24. Signs of inadequate airway include:
a) Wheezing, crowing, or gurgling noises
b) Cyanosis of the lips, earlobes, or nail beds
c) The patient being unable to speak in full sentences
d) All of the above
25. During your assessment of a 54-year-old male patient, you find that he is not breathing. Your next step should be to:
a) Check for a pulse and look for severe bleeding
b) Confirm that the airway is open
c) Begin providing artificial ventilations
d) Begin chest compressions
1. An adequate number of breaths per minute for artificial ventilation of infants and children is:
a) 40
b) 30
c) 20
d) 50
2. If a patient is experiencing breathing difficulty but is breathing adequately, she should be placed in a:
a) Sitting position
b) Supine position
c) Prone position
d) Position of comfort
3. The best-known symptom of a heart problem is:
a) Difficulty breathing
b) Chills
c) Chest pain
d) Headache
4. The most important component of successful CPR implementation is:
a) Avoiding compression interruptions
b) Good technique
c) Managing the airway first
d) Using two persons
5. When AEDs deliver shocks inappropriately, the LEAST common cause is:
a) Improper AED use
b) Poor maintenance
c) Improper patient assessment
d) Mechanical error
6. Quality compressions when doing CPR include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Pushing hard
b) Pushing fast
c) Pausing every cycle for pulse check
d) Allowing full chest recoil
7. The first step in assessing a patient in cardiac arrest is to:
a) Perform a focused physical exam
b) Verify pulselessness and apnea
c) Attach the AED
d) Obtain a SAMPLE history
8. All the following are signs or symptoms commonly associated with a diabetic emergency EXCEPT:
a) An elevated heart rate
b) Seizures
c) Combativeness
d) Hot, dry skin
9. If a patient exhibits impaired speech and numbness on one side of the body, what should be suspected?
a) Stroke
b) Cardiac arrest
c) Diabetic emergency
d) Seizures
10. The skin color that indicates anemia is:
a) Pale
b) Mottling
c) Flushed
d) Jaundiced
11. When checking pupils, an EMT should look for all the following EXCEPT:
a) Size
b) Equality
c) Reactivity
d) Color
12. For unstable patients, an EMT should take vital signs every:
a) 20 minutes
b) 15 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 5 minutes
13. The patient’s statement, "I feel like I just can’t get enough air when I breathe," best relates to what letter of the SAMPLE mnemonic?
a) S (Signs and symptoms)
b) L (Last oral intake)
c) M (Medications)
d) P (Past medical history)
0 Comments