1. In which quadrant, the most part of the liver is situated?
a) Left lower
b) Right upper
c) Right lower
d) Left upper
2. _______ are qualified and registered clinicians who specialize in working in urgent and emergency care settings.
a) Technicians
b) Paramedics
c) Medical Directors
d) Community Responders
3. The situation in which breach of duty of care causes reasonably foreseeable harm is known as?
a) Neglect
b) Carelessness
c) Negligence
d) Maximum Care Provided
4. Ligaments are the fibers which connect?
a) Muscle to Bone
b) Bone to Bone
c) Tendon to Bone
d) Bone to Cartilage
5. How many total lumbar vertebrae are in the spinal column?
a) Seven
b) Four
c) Five
d) Twelve
6. As an EMT, you are treating a patient with a penetrating eye injury. What should you do?
a) Remove the object slowly and carefully
b) Remove the object if it is <5mm deep
c) Remove the object if vision is not obstructed
d) Secure the object at its place
7. An EMT is authorized to reduce the movement of a dislocated finger by applying gentle longitudinal traction:
a) True
b) False
8. Incidents containing the release of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear materials are:
a) Cloud on the horizon
b) Rising tide
c) Deliberate
d) Atomic Incidents
9. One of the biggest threats to EMS providers from violence is due to?
a) Terrorist Activity
b) Domestic Dispute
c) Uncontrolled Crowd
d) Drive by Shooting
10. Which component of assessment is conducted while en route to the hospital?
a) SAMPLE
b) Brief Assessment
c) Ongoing Assessment
d) Focused History
11. A numerical measurement of exhaled CO2 is known as:
a) Capnography
b) Capnometry
c) Capnograph
d) Capnogram
12. Preventer inhalers include:
a) Salbutamol
b) Budesonide
c) Terbutaline
d) Ipratropium bromide
13. Most patients experiencing chest pain do not have a heart attack:
a) True
b) False
14. A bee sting can lead to:
a) Cardiogenic Shock
b) Anaphylactic Shock
c) Neurogenic Shock
d) Allergy Shock
15. Oropharyngeal airways are rigid intraoral devices that conform to the tongue and displace it away from the posterior pharyngeal walls. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication of this procedure?
a) Lack of gag reflex
b) Oral Trauma
c) Consciousness
d) Trismus Jaw
16. Common signs and symptoms of patients suffering from cardiac compromise include:
a) Dull aching chest pain, numbness in the extremities, cyanosis and decreased B.P
b) Crushing pain, lacrimation, dyspnea, alopia, nausea & vomiting
c) Dyspnea, dull chest pain radiating to arms & jaw, diaphoresis and cardiomyopathy
d) Dyspnea, squeezing, dull or crushing mild chest discomfort, pain radiating to arms & jaw, nausea & vomiting
17. When AED analyzes the patient for a shockable rhythm, an EMT should do:
a) Continue with full CPR
b) Reassess pulse during the down time
c) Ensure that no one is touching the patient including EMT
d) None of these
18. Each large square of ECG represents:
a) 0.04 seconds
b) 0.20 seconds
c) 0.02 seconds
d) 0.40 seconds
19. In an unresponsive patient, who is given ventilation by using BVM, nasopharyngeal airway is contraindicated:
a) True
b) False
20. Which of the following is not a risk factor for pneumothorax?
a) Family history
b) On mechanical ventilation
c) Being female
d) Smoking
21. Which of the following is a typical sign of compensated shock?
a) Bradycardia
b) Warm & pink skin
c) Rapid heart rate
d) Slow & deep breathing
22. The term “Stridor” is typically referred to which type of airway obstruction?
a) Upper airway
b) Lower airway
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
23. The QT interval on an electrocardiogram starts at:
a) Start of ST segment
b) End of P wave
c) End of PR segment
d) End of QRS complex
24. What happens when the diaphragm contracts?
a) Inter costal muscles relax
b) Air moves out of the lungs
c) Air moves into the lungs
d) Separation of thoracic and peritoneal cavities
25. In which of the following cases, you may have the last option to remove a penetrating object?
a) Object in lungs
b) Object in jugular vein
c) Object in airway
d) Object in eye
26. The scapula is located proximal to:
a) Parietal Bone
b) Pelvic Bone
c) Thoracic Vertebrae
d) Sternum
27. Disease-causing organisms are called:
a) Antibodies
b) Parasites
c) Pathogens
d) Immuno-suppressors
28. One of the best ways to prevent the spread of diseases is:
a) Ask patient about HIV exposure
b) Frequently hand washing
c) Regular medical checkup & reports
d) Improve immune system
29. Patients with febrile convulsion are not considered to be epileptic since the convulsions are provoked by a sudden increase in temperature.
a) True
b) False
30. The patients completely unaware & unresponsive to external stimuli, with no eye opening upon pain, no eye tracking or fixation and limb withdrawal upon a noxious stimulus best represent:
a) Meningitis
b) Paralysis
c) Coma
d) ALOC
31. The term utilized for a systemic inflammatory response to a core body temperature of 40.6°C or more and associated with altered level of consciousness and organ dysfunction:
a) Heat Stress
b) Heat Exhaustion
c) Heat Stroke
d) Hyperthermia
32. The heart valve located where the blood leaves the right ventricle is known as:
a) Bicuspid Valve
b) Pulmonary Valve
c) Zygomatic Valve
d) Tricuspid Valve
33. How many areas should you palpate while assessing the possible abdominal injuries?
a) 01
b) 06
c) 04
d) 02
34. You have a patient with decreased breath sounds on one side, hypoxia, and with tracheal deviation. The suspected diagnosis will be:
a) Flail Chest
b) Cardiac Tamponade
c) Open Pneumothorax
d) Tension Pneumothorax
35. The following membranes surround vital organs except:
a) Pericardium
b) Perineum
c) Peritoneum
d) Pleura
36. The radial pulse rate is usually slightly slower than the carotid pulse:
a) True
b) False
37. The initial treatment for a responsive patient suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning is:
a) 100% O2 via nasal cannula
b) 100% O2 via non-rebreather mask
c) Activated Charcoal
d) Immediate Intubation
38. The most common airway obstruction in an unresponsive patient is:
a) Dentures
b) Food Particles
c) Flaccid Tongue
d) Vomitus Material
39. The term “Lateral” is referred as:
a) Towards the feet
b) Towards the middle
c) Towards the side
d) Towards the front
40. It may be possible to resuscitate somebody who has been in cardiac arrest for more than 30 minutes if they are submerged in cold water:
a) True
b) False
41. What is the definition of “auscultation”?
a) Administrating Medicines
b) Listening to body sounds
c) Taking blood pressure
d) Viewing the retina
42. The term “Dorsal” is referred as:
a) Below
b) Back
c) Front
d) Middle
43. Shocking news can lead to:
a) Cardiogenic Shock
b) Physiogenic Shock
c) Neurogenic Shock
d) Psychogenic Shock
44. What is the purpose of checking capillary refill before and after bandage?
a) Check pain tolerance
b) Check circulation
c) To check neurogenic function
d) None
45. The diaphragm is part of which system?
a) Endocrine
b) Integumentary
c) Respiratory
d) Muscoskeletal
46. An unresponsive adult patient is breathing at the rate of 6 breaths per minute. Which treatment will you provide?
a) CPR with 100% O2
b) CPR with 6 liters/minute with nasal cannula
c) BVM with 100% O2
d) Non-rebreather mask with 100% O2
47. The pulse that is palpated near the groin is called:
a) Carotid
b) Femoral
c) Posterior-Tibial
d) Popliteal
48. The lungs are divided into lobes by deep grooves known as:
a) Septum
b) Fissures
c) Lobules
d) Obliques
49. Which of the following is included in supplementary oxygen devices?
a) Firtree
b) Nasopharyngeal Airway
c) BVM
d) Medium concentration mask
50. Sino-atrial node, the main pacemaker of the heart, is located at the junction of:
a) Right sino-atrial septum
b) Aortic valve and left atrium
c) Superior vena cava & right atrium
d) Right atrial wall and opening of coronary sinus
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