Interactive MCQs
1. Which is the cold-induced injury to the tissues?
A. Burn
B. Frostbite
C. Stroke
2. The preferred position in which to place patients with polytrauma is:
A. On the back with arms and legs extended
B. Prone
C. The Trendelenburg position
D. The Fowler's position
3. When approaching a trauma scene, the first thing that you do is to manage:
A. Airway
B. Manual c-spine control
C. Breathing
D. Scene safety
4. What is a large collection of blood under the skin?
A. Laceration
B. Hematoma
C. Avulsion
5. Loss of tissue in a traumatic event can be soft tissue, a portion of an extremity, or an entire extremity. If your patient has lost the distal one-third of a lower extremity, what would that injury be called?
A. Amplitude
B. Avulsion
C. Extremity exodus
D. Amputation
6. Low blood sugar may be associated with:
A. Stroke
B. Cerebrovascular accident
C. Altered mental status
D. COPD
7. Your 16-year-old trauma patient has what appears to be a mid-shaft femur fracture. You notice a laceration directly over the suspected fracture, and bleeding is controlled. What type of fracture would this be?
A. Greenstick
B. Comminuted
C. Closed
D. Open
8. You arrive on the scene of a patient who fell from a ladder. Which of the following information is NOT an important factor in the patient’s care?
A. Height of the ladder
B. Distance the patient fell from
C. Surface the patient landed on
D. The part of the body that hit first
9. Which of the following patients has the LEAST need to be sent to the Emergency Department?
A. 24-year-old patient with pregnancy, abdominal pain, and syncope
B. 18-year-old patient with the "worst ever headache"
C. 20-year-old patient with isolated left facial numbness for 2 days
D. 48-year-old patient with chest pain and history of balloon angioplasty a year ago
10. The bicuspid valve located on the left side of the heart is:
A. Aortic Valve
B. Tricuspid Valve
C. Pulmonary Valve
D. Mitral Valve
11. A Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order is an example of:
A. Refusal of care
B. Advance directive
C. EMT's decision
D. Consent
12. You are called to transfer a young, 38-weeks pregnant lady to the hospital as she is experiencing regular contractions every 5 minutes along with blood-stained mucoid vaginal discharge. Your next step is to:
A. Prepare the patient for delivery at the scene
B. Transfer the patient to the nearest hospital
C. Counsel the patient that she does not require transportation
D. Establish contact with her primary obstetrician for instructions
13. The control room asked you to respond to a road traffic crash between a motorbike and car where you find a victim lying on the road with catastrophic bleeding from the distal leg. Which step should you perform first?
A. Initial assessment
B. Check the mechanism of injury
C. Control catastrophic bleeding
D. Ensure scene safety and standard precautions
14. You are providing bag-mask ventilation to an unresponsive patient with a pulse. Your aim will be to give every breath after:
A. 7 to 8 seconds
B. 5 to 6 seconds
C. 4 to 5 seconds
D. 3 to 4 seconds
15. You arrive at the scene in an electric company office where you find a patient experiencing severe sternal pain radiating to the left jaw and both arms with profuse sweating. This patient is likely to have:
A. Brain attack
B. Heart attack
C. Stroke
D. Acute asthma
16. In a water rescue emergency, you find a victim who is unresponsive, pulseless, breathless, and whose body is stiffened without decomposition. The EMT should:
A. Perform CPR
B. Provide abdominal thrusts to evacuate the lungs
C. Start artificial ventilation
D. Elevate the legs and maintain body temperature
17. While eating food at a hotel, you observe an old man whose airway is blocked due to food. He is unable to breathe or speak. As an EMT, you should:
A. Encourage the patient to cough
B. Deliver up to five back blows and five abdominal thrusts
C. Deliver up to five abdominal thrusts
D. Encourage the patient to take a deep breath
18. You are directed by the control room to respond to a medical emergency involving a laborer working on an extremely hot sunny day. His body temperature is 40°C, with flushed dry skin. What is your diagnosis?
A. Heat exhaustion
B. Heat stroke
C. Heat cramps
D. Hypothermia
19. The most frequent initial rhythm found in cardiac arrest is:
A. Asystole
B. Sinus rhythm
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. Ventricular tachycardia
20. During FAST assessment, "S" stands for:
A. Severity
B. Speech difficulty
C. Social disturbance
D. Swelling
21. You find a 7-month-old infant with a heart rate of less than 60 and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min. You should immediately:
A. Start CPR
B. Give high-flow O2
C. Transport in an upright position
D. Apply AED and start CPR
22. Mr. Kashif met a serious road accident. He is suspected to have a bone fracture and respiratory illness. Which device is likely to measure the oxygen saturation of the patient?
A. Auscultation
B. Pulse oximeter
C. Chest rise and fall
D. Peak flow meter
23. Miss Noreen, an asthmatic patient, was advised to check peak flows to determine how well air moves out of her lungs. The first reading was 50, the second was 100, and the third was 150. Which is the exact reading to consider?
A. 50 L/min
B. 100 L/min
C. 150 L/min
D. 125 L/min
24. The sinoatrial node is known as the main pacemaker of the heart that generates impulses.
A. Coronary artery
B. Coronary sinus
C. Sinoatrial node
D. Atrioventricular node
25. Mr. Raza's heart rate is 75 beats per minute. His one cardiac cycle is expected to complete in:
A. 0.8 seconds
B. 0.1 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 0.05 seconds
26. Mr. Kashif met an accident, and his limb has been injured badly after colliding with a car. The capillary refill will be:
A. >2 seconds
B. =2 seconds
C. <2 seconds
D. <1 second
27. Mr. Ahmed is usually hypertensive. The doctor advised him to make a chart of routine blood pressure. Blood pressure can be obtained by:
A. A sensor inserted into the patient's vein
B. Stethoscope
C. Sphygmomanometer
D. ECG
28. There are ____ pairs of spinal nerves in the human body:
A. 30
B. 31
C. 32
D. 33
29. Never share the patient's information with:
A. Bystanders
B. Media
C. Relatives
D. All of the above
30. A boy had regular jerky bodily movements, went stiff, and fell down. This is an example of:
A. Tonic-clonic seizure
B. Partial convulsions
C. Focal convulsions
D. All of the above
31. ____ assessment should be performed when handling a patient manually to a wheelchair or spine board:
A. ABCDE
B. TILE
C. STABLE
D. OPQRSTA
32. Mrs. Kashif, a third-trimester pregnant lady, met a road traffic crash. You found her in cardiac arrest and had to perform chest compressions on the mid-sternum. To prevent uterine pressure on the abdominal aorta and inferior vena cava, her abdomen should be tilted towards:
A. Right lateral
B. Left lateral
C. Recumbent
D. Semi-recumbent
33. The vertebra is an example of which type of bone?
A. Sesamoid
B. Flat
C. Irregular
D. Short
34. A laryngectomy patient with no breath will be managed by giving breaths via:
A. Mouth
B. Nose
C. Stoma
D. Both A and B
35. A 40-year-old woman crying with pain and unable to explain her situation is an example of a/an ____ in communication:
A. Physical barrier
B. Language barrier
C. Emotional barrier
D. Non-verbal skill barrier
36. The pelvic bone is formed by the fusion of three bones:
A. Coccygeal, sacrum, pubis
B. Ilium, ischium, pubis
C. Ilium, sacrum, coccygeal
D. Femur, pubis, ilium
37. When using a bag valve mask, the key finding to observe to assure adequate ventilation is:
A. Three seconds between squeezing the bag and lifting the mask off the face
B. The patient’s weight in kilograms
C. Good chest rise and fall
D. The location of the patient’s cricoid cartilage
38. Which term describes when a medicine is prohibited?
A. Indication
B. Contraindication
C. Mechanism of action
D. Side effect
39. When should the first responder clear the victim while using an AED?
A. Removal of medical patches
B. Analyzing heart rhythm
C. Ventilation with a pocket mask
D. Before delivery of a shock
40. Shock is most likely to occur as a result of bleeding from:
A. Artery
B. Capillary
C. Vein
D. Arteriole
41. What is the name for the life-threatening reaction of the body caused by an extreme allergy to a substance?
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Reactionary allergy
C. Anabolic reaction
D. Reactionary shock
42. The type of drowning in which plasma is drawn to the lungs:
A. Dry drowning
B. Freshwater drowning
C. Saltwater drowning
D. Secondary dry drowning
43. The size of the suction catheter should be taken:
A. From the corner of the mouth to the ear lobe
B. From the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw
C. From the incisor to the angle of the jaw
D. From the incisor to the ear lobe
44. A sign of stroke (CVA) includes:
A. Chest pain
B. High blood pressure, high lipids, headache
C. Ankle swelling, dizziness
D. Speech difficulties; arm weakness
45. Which is a sign/symptom of shock:
A. High blood pressure
B. Rapid weak pulse
C. High-grade fever
D. Old age
46. Alveoli are surrounded by:
A. Capillaries
B. Veins
C. Nerves
D. Aorta
47. Blood consists of:
A. Supersession cells
B. Plasma, red blood cells, white cells, and platelets
C. Hemoglobin, leukocytes, plastin platelets
D. Plasma, lipids, and proteins
48. An ideal cardiac compression fraction during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should be:
A. At least 60%
B. At least 70%
C. At least 90%
D. At least 80%
49. Before drug administration verify:
A. Manufacturing
B. Brand
C. Expiry date
D. Opened seal date
50. Labor before 37 weeks is called:
A. Preterm
B. Normal
C. Complicated
D. Post-term
51. Penetrating trauma to the eye should be treated by:
A. Quickly and carefully removing the penetrating object
B. Removing the object if it is less than 2mm in diameter
C. Securing the penetrating object in place
D. Pulling out the object and controlling bleeding
52. If using a Nonrebreather mask, the flow rate should be:
A. 1-6 lpm
B. 25-45 lpm
C. 10-15 lpm
D. 12-15 lpm
53. What is the purpose of checking capillary refill before and after splinting?
A. To check pain
B. To check circulation
C. To check neurogenic function
D. To check tenderness
54. _______ are infection fighters:
A. WBCs
B. RBCs
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
55. The most common cause of AED failure is:
A. Poor AED maintenance, especially battery failure
B. Improper positioning of the defibrillation pads on the patient's chest
C. Interference from other patient monitoring equipment
D. Ventilation of the patient prior to delivering a shock
56. When measuring baseline vitals and the pulse is irregular, you should:
A. Take the pulse for 15 seconds and multiply by 4
B. Take the pulse for 30 seconds and multiply by 2
C. Take the pulse for 60 seconds
D. Take the pulse for 45 seconds
57. The best treatment for a second-degree burn:
A. Toothpaste
B. Saliva
C. Burnol
D. Flush with normal saline or water
58. The most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation is:
A. CPR
B. Defibrillation
C. Early use of airway adjuncts
D. Early treatment by advanced life support personnel
59. The joint found in the shoulder is:
A. Ball and socket joint
B. Hinge
C. Fused
D. Gliding
60. The term abduction refers to:
A. Towards the midline
B. Away from the midline
C. Around the axis
D. None of the above
61. What kind of consent is taken from a patient with an altered level of consciousness?
A. Informed
B. Implied
C. All
D. None
62. According to Dr. Kubler-Ross, the stage of the grieving process identified by the open expression of grief, hopelessness, and the desire to die is:
A. Denial
B. Acceptance
C. Bargaining
D. Depression
63. When should you give rescue breathing?
A. Conscious choking victim
B. Unconscious choking victim
C. Unconscious without pulse and breathing
D. Unconscious, not breathing but has a pulse
64. You are treating a victim of cardiac arrest with an AED. You have powered up the AED, attached the electrode pads, and it is analyzing. The AED has charged and gives the "shock indicated" voice prompt. Your next step is to:
A. Push the shock button
B. Clear the patient
C. Commence CPR
D. Check pulse
65. Which of the following is NOT a component of high-performance CPR?
A. Compression rate of 100 to 120 per minute
B. Check pulse for 15 seconds
C. Chest compression depth of 2 to 2.4 inches
D. Allow full chest recoil
66. You are in the middle of high-performance CPR in the field when an AED prompts to give a shock to the patient. The next step in the management of this patient is:
A. Immediately push the shock button
B. Wait for the first rescuer to finish chest compressions
C. Charge the AED
D. Ask your senior for help
67. You arrived at a scene where the patient is found unresponsive. On examination, the patient was breathing abnormally but had a palpable pulse. The most appropriate step in the management of this patient is:
A. Start chest compressions
B. Apply supplemental oxygen
C. Apply non-invasive ventilation
D. Start bag-mask ventilation
68. The recommended rate of chest compressions during CPR is:
A. 80 to 100 compressions per minute
B. 100 to 120 compressions per minute
C. 80 to 120 compressions per minute
D. 120 to 140 compressions per minute
69. The most appropriate action for a choking victim who is conscious and able to cough forcefully is:
A. Encourage the patient to continue coughing
B. Perform the Heimlich maneuver immediately
C. Deliver five back blows
D. Perform abdominal thrusts
70. A patient presents with severe pain and swelling to the right lower abdomen. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Appendicitis
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Gallbladder disease
D. Pancreatitis
71. The most effective method of controlling a large wound hemorrhage is:
A. Direct pressure
B. Applying a tourniquet
C. Elevation of the affected extremity
D. Applying a hemostatic dressing
72. Which of the following is a contraindication for administering nitroglycerin?
A. Hypotension
B. Chest pain
C. History of coronary artery disease
D. Tachycardia
73. A 45-year-old patient complains of sharp, stabbing chest pain. The most likely cause of this pain is:
A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Pericarditis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
74. The term "shock" refers to:
A. Severe dehydration
B. Insufficient blood flow to tissues
C. A state of hypoxia
D. Sudden loss of consciousness
75. A 60-year-old patient presents with slurred speech and facial droop. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Stroke
B. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
C. Seizure
D. Hypoglycemia
76. The primary function of the kidneys is to:
A. Store urine
B. Regulate body temperature
C. Filter blood and remove waste
D. Produce red blood cells
77. Which of the following is the first step in treating a burn victim?
A. Remove the victim from the source of burn
B. Apply ice to the burned area
C. Cover the burn with a sterile bandage
D. Administer pain medications
78. An unconscious patient with a suspected spinal injury should be:
A. Moved to a sitting position
B. Placed in a recovery position
C. Maintained in a neutral position
D. Turned on their side to allow drainage
79. The correct procedure for CPR in infants is:
A. Two fingers compressions and one-rescuer CPR
B. Two-thumb technique and two-rescuer CPR
C. Heel of the hand compressions
D. Chest compressions without rescue breaths
80. The most common sign of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is:
A. Chest pain or discomfort
B. Shortness of breath
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Lightheadedness
81. The proper compression depth for adult CPR is:
A. 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm)
B. 1 to 1.5 inches (2.5 to 3.8 cm)
C. 3 to 4 inches (7.5 to 10 cm)
D. 4.5 to 5 inches (11 to 13 cm)
82. When treating a patient with a suspected head injury, it is most important to:
A. Keep the patient's head and neck immobilized
B. Provide immediate pain relief
C. Lay the patient flat on their back
D. Remove any protective headgear
83. The first step in managing a diabetic emergency with an altered mental status is:
A. Administer insulin
B. Check the blood glucose level
C. Administer oral glucose if the patient is unconscious
D. Transport the patient immediately
84. The recommended treatment for a patient with a suspected tension pneumothorax is:
A. Needle decompression
B. Chest compression
C. Defibrillation
D. Administration of oxygen
85. For a patient with suspected spinal injury, the initial assessment includes:
A. Manual cervical stabilization
B. Repositioning to check for breathing
C. Immediate application of a cervical collar
D. Performing a rapid trauma assessment
86. The primary purpose of administering high-flow oxygen to a patient in shock is:
A. To treat respiratory acidosis
B. To improve tissue oxygenation
C. To decrease heart rate
D. To manage pain
87. A patient with a suspected stroke should be transported:
A. To the nearest stroke center
B. To the nearest trauma center
C. To the nearest hospital
D. Without delay to any hospital
88. The initial step in managing an open chest wound is:
A. Seal the wound with an airtight dressing
B. Apply direct pressure
C. Administer pain relief
D. Start chest compressions
89. You are treating a patient with a suspected broken leg. Which of the following should you do first?
A. Immobilize the leg
B. Administer pain medication
C. Assess the patient's circulation
D. Perform a full trauma assessment
90. The most appropriate initial action for a patient who is experiencing a severe allergic reaction is:
A. Administer epinephrine
B. Give antihistamines
C. Perform CPR
D. Apply a cold compress
91. The correct treatment for a patient who has suffered a burn to the face and neck from a fire is:
A. Apply cool, moist cloths to the burned area
B. Apply butter or ointments to the burn
C. Immerse the face and neck in cool water
D. Cover the burn with a sterile dressing and transport immediately
92. The recommended ventilation rate for an adult patient during CPR is:
A. 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds
B. 1 breath every 2 to 3 seconds
C. 1 breath every 10 seconds
D. 2 breaths every 10 seconds
93. A patient is experiencing heat stroke. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to take?
A. Move the patient to a cool area and apply cool packs
B. Give the patient a cold beverage to drink
C. Apply ice directly to the skin
D. Transport the patient immediately without cooling
94. The first step in treating a patient with an allergic reaction after they have been exposed to an allergen is:
A. Administer epinephrine if prescribed
B. Apply oxygen and monitor vitals
C. Have the patient sit up to ease breathing
D. Begin CPR if the patient is unresponsive
95. Which of the following is a sign of a potential heart attack in a patient?
A. Chest pain or discomfort
B. Sudden headache
C. Sudden, sharp abdominal pain
D. Persistent nausea and vomiting without chest discomfort
96. What is the first action to take when managing a patient with an airway obstruction due to a foreign object?
A. Perform the Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrusts)
B. Perform chest compressions
C. Insert an oral airway
D. Ask the patient to cough forcefully
97. You respond to a call for a patient with severe abdominal pain and tenderness. What should you avoid doing?
A. Palpating the abdomen forcefully
B. Administering pain relief as per protocol
C. Transporting the patient to the hospital without delay
D. Assuring the patient that everything will be okay
98. For a patient with suspected hypothermia, you should:
A. Warm the patient slowly with blankets and warm fluids if possible
B. Place the patient in a hot bath to warm them up quickly
C. Administer warm coffee or alcohol to warm the patient
D. Perform vigorous massage to stimulate circulation
99. The correct procedure for treating a snake bite includes:
A. Keeping the patient calm and transporting them to the hospital
B. Applying a tourniquet above the bite site
C. Trying to suck out the venom from the bite
D. Ice the bite area to reduce swelling
100. The primary purpose of a rapid trauma assessment is:
A. To identify life-threatening injuries
B. To assess for minor injuries
C. To determine the patient's medical history
D. To comfort the patient and reduce anxiety