Interactive MCQs
55. The most common cause of AED failure is:
a) Poor AED maintenance, especially battery failure
b) Improper positioning of the defibrillation pads on the patient’s chest
c) Interference from other patient monitoring equipment
d) Ventilation of the patient prior to delivering shock
56. When measuring baseline vitals and the pulse is irregular, you should:
a) Take pulse for 15 seconds and multiply by 4
b) Take pulse for 30 seconds and multiply by 2
c) Take pulse for 60 seconds
d) Take pulse for 45 seconds
57. The best treatment for a second-degree burn is:
a) Toothpaste
b) Saliva
c) Burnol
d) Flush with normal saline or water
58. The most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation is:
a) CPR
b) Defibrillation
c) Early use of airway adjuncts
d) Early treatment by advanced life support personnel
59. The joint found in the shoulder is:
a) Ball and socket joint
b) Hinge
c) Fused
d) Gliding
60. The term abduction refers to:
a) Towards the midline
b) Away from the midline
c) Around axis
d) None of the above
61. What kind of consent is taken from a patient with altered level of consciousness?
a) Informed
b) Implied
c) All
d) None
62. According to Dr. Kubler-Ross, the stage of the grieving process identified by open expression of grief, hopelessness, and the desire to die is:
a) Denial
b) Acceptance
c) Bargaining
d) Depression
63. When should you give rescue breathing?
a) Conscious choking victim
b) Unconscious choking victim
c) Unconscious without pulse and breathing
d) Unconscious, not breathing but has pulse
64. You are treating a victim of cardiac arrest with an AED. You have powered up the AED, attached the electrode pads, and it is analyzing. The AED has charged and gives the “shock indicated” voice prompt. Your next step is to:
a) Push the shock button
b) Clear the patient
c) Commence CPR
d) Check pulse
65. Which of the following is not a component of high-performance CPR?
a) Compression rate of 100 to 120 per minute
b) Check pulse for 15 seconds
c) Chest compression depth of 2 to 2.4 inches
d) Allow full chest recoil
1. The victim is lying on his back. What is the proper term for this position?
a) Prone
b) Recovery
c) Trendelenburg's
d) Supine
2. To determine the patient's level of consciousness, your buddy rubs his knuckles on the patient's chest. The patient brings his arms up to his chest in response. This type of motion is called:
a) Flexion
b) Abduction
c) Extension
d) Adduction
3. A hazard is anything that might cause harm, such as chemicals, electricity, working from ladders, an open drawer, etc. What is the correct term?
a) Risk
b) Hazard
c) Clinical risk
d) Biological risk
4. What is the term for infection control that assumes all bodily fluids should be considered infectious?
a) Body surface isolation
b) Body substance infection control
c) Body substance isolation
d) Blood substance isolation
5. Which mask provides maximum protection against airborne infections such as acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)?
a) Surgical face mask
b) AFR mask
c) Filtering facepiece (FFP3) mask
d) Medical face mask
6. Which container is used to dispose of sharps safely?
a) Yellow-lidded sharps receptacle
b) Clear plastic bag
c) Black bag
d) Green waste bin
7. In case of vehicle fires in the engine compartment, what should you do?
a) Switch off the ignition, open the bonnet, and use the extinguisher.
b) Switch off the ignition, release the bonnet, and use the extinguisher via the grill.
c) Switch off the ignition, don't release or open the bonnet, and use the extinguisher under the edges of the bonnet.
d) Don't switch off the ignition, open the bonnet, and use the fire extinguisher.
8. PTSD stands for:
a) Post-traumatic stress disease
b) Post-traumatic stress disorder
c) Post-traumatic stress debriefing
d) Past trauma stress disease
9. Which cells are responsible for producing red blood cells (RBCs)?
a) Red blood cells (RBCs)
b) White blood cells (WBCs)
c) Platelets
d) RBCs, WBCs & Platelets
10. Synovial joints include all except:
a) Fibrous joints
b) Acromioclavicular joints
c) Hip & shoulder joints
d) Elbow joints
11. The vertebral column (spine) is made up of how many irregular bones known as vertebrae?
a) 31
b) 32
c) 33
d) 34
12. How many pairs of ribs are present in a human?
a) 11
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14
13. Why is documentation of the situation necessary?
a) Demonstrates that the care delivered was appropriate
b) Provides an opportunity to communicate the patient's story to others
c) Ensures continuity of care
d) All of the above
14. After opening the patient's airway and confirming spontaneous respirations, you check for a pulse on his neck just lateral to the trachea. What artery are you using?
a) Radial
b) Brachial
c) Carotid
d) Femoral
15. You perform an assessment while en route to the hospital. You note bruising and instability of the right cheekbone. What is the proper name of this bone?
a) Zygoma
b) Maxilla
c) Sphenoid
d) Mandible
16. The elbow is an example of what type of joint?
a) Ball and socket
b) Saddle
c) Immovable
d) Hinge
17. The name of a medication like Tenormin is an example of what?
a) Trade name
b) Generic name
c) Chemical name
d) Official name
18. The patient was prescribed Tenormin to lower her blood pressure. This is referred to as the medication's:
a) Indication
b) Contraindication
c) Side effects
d) Intended effect
19. Your partner is preparing to administer oxygen to a trauma patient. What is the preferred method for delivering oxygen to a critically breathing patient?
a) Bag valve mask (BVM)
b) Non-rebreather mask
c) Nasal cannula
d) Venturi mask
20. Which of the following terms would be used to describe a pulse rate of 140 beats/min?
a) Bradycardia
b) Dyspnea
c) Tachycardia
d) Tachypnea
21. What is primary assessment?
a) A systematic physical examination
b) Physical examination performed on regular intervals
c) A process that identifies life threats
d) A process that identifies the nature of illness
22. Which part of the airway serves as the functional site for gas exchange?
a) Trachea
b) Bronchi
c) Alveoli
d) Carina
23. While en route to the emergency department, the patient's level of consciousness diminishes, his respiratory rate decreases to 4 breaths/min, his lips have a blue tint, and the pulse oximeter reads 65%. You should begin delivering artificial breaths with a bag mask device at a rate of one breath every:
a) 3 to 5 seconds
b) 5 to 6 seconds
c) 8 to 10 seconds
d) 10 to 12 seconds
1. Which of the following may produce an inaccurate pulse oximeter reading?
a) The heart rate
b) Hyperventilation
c) Chronic hypoxia
d) False fingernails
2. When ventilating a victim, the volume of air delivered to the patient is based on:
a) The heart rate
b) Pulse oximetry
c) Skin colour
d) Chest rise
3. Placing the patient's head and torso at an angle of 45° is called the:
a) Upright position
b) Recumbent position
c) Semi-recumbent position
d) Fowler position
4. In the mnemonic "SCENE", N stands for:
a) Nature of injury/illness
b) Nature of emergency
c) Number of patients
d) Need of resources
5. The 2005 earthquake in Pakistan was a type of disaster known as:
a) Moderate
b) Major
c) Mass
d) Catastrophic
6. The ambulance incident commander (AIC) is also called:
a) Strategic commander
b) Tactical commander
c) Operational commander
d) Incident commander
7. During triage, a victim with perfusion >2 seconds and a respiratory rate of 12/min should be assigned which category?
a) Green
b) Yellow
c) Red
d) Black
8. Triage sorting is performed:
a) At the incident site
b) At the casualty clearing station
c) At the hospital
d) None of the above
9. Your first and immediate assessment of the patient and their current location, which will give you an early indication of how sick or injured the patient is, is known as:
a) Initial assessment
b) General impression
c) Primary survey
d) Initial clinical impression
10. A rapid assessment of the patient's level of consciousness can be undertaken using the acronym:
a) STABLE
b) OPQRSTA
c) TILE
d) AVPU
11. Which type of tracheostomy tube has an opening on the outer cannula that allows air to pass through the patient's oropharynx and nasopharynx?
a) Tube with inner cannula
b) Fenestrated tube
c) Unfenestrated tube
d) Cuffed tube
12. The exchange of gases inside cells is called:
a) Intracellular respiration
b) Extracellular respiration
c) External respiration
d) Eternal respiration
13. The pressure each of the gases exerts to make up the total pressure of air is known as:
a) Total pressure of air
b) Gas's partial pressure
c) Gas's total pressure
d) Tidal volume
14. Special sensory neurons located close to the medulla, in the walls of the aortic and carotid arteries, are called:
a) Chemoreceptors
b) Peripheral chemoreceptors
c) Sensory receptors
d) Biological receptors
15. The attachment point of the oxygen tube is known as:
a) Schrader outlet
b) Capstan
c) Firtree
d) Flowmeter
16. The best oxygen delivery device for COPD patients is:
a) Non-rebreather mask
b) Medium concentration mask
c) Venturi mask
d) Nasal cannula
17. The target oxygen saturation for a patient with paraquat poisoning is:
a) 86-88%
b) 88-92%
c) 92-94%
d) 94-98%
18. Entonox is contraindicated except in:
a) Labour pains
b) Severe head injuries
c) Decompression sickness
d) Violently disturbed psychiatric patient
19. How much blood loss in adults can produce shock?
a) 150-500 ml
b) 500-1000 ml
c) 1000-1500 ml
d) 1500-2000 ml
20. The common cause of convulsions/seizures in children is:
a) Epilepsy
b) High-grade fever
c) Meningitis
d) Hypoglycaemia
21. The serious allergic reaction that is rapid in onset and may cause death is known as:
a) Anaphylaxis
b) Aerobic reaction
c) Anaerobic reaction
d) Biological reaction
22. The dosage of adrenaline for anaphylaxis for children aged 6-12 years is:
a) 150 mcg
b) 300 mcg
c) 500 mcg
d) 650 mcg
23. The target blood sugar range to maintain in diabetic adults is:
a) 30-50 mmol/L
b) 40-70 mmol/L
c) 56-80 mmol/L
d) 60-90 mmol/L
24. A wound caused by friction shearing the skin away is known as:
a) Laceration
b) Contusion
c) Abrasion
d) Incision
25. The most common cause of spinal injuries is:
a) Fall from height
b) Road traffic crash
c) Sports injuries
d) Shooting injuries
26. A condition where air enters the pleural space on inspiration but can't escape during expiration due to the presence of a one-way valve formed by a pleural defect is called:
a) Haemothorax
b) Pneumothorax
c) Open pneumothorax
d) Tension pneumothorax
27. Blunt chest trauma can lead to multiple rib and sternal fractures. In the event that two or more ribs are broken in two or more places and the segment starts to move paradoxically, this condition is called:
a) Rib fracture
b) Sternum fracture
c) Flail chest
d) None of the above
28. The abdominal cavity is lined with a membrane called:
a) Pleura
b) Meninges
c) Peritoneum
d) Pericardium
70. The appendix is located in what quadrant of the abdomen?
a) Upper right
b) Upper left
c) Lower right
d) Lower left
71. The priority in treating burns is:
a) Clean any open wound
b) Take vital signs
c) Stop the burning process
d) Keep the airway open
72. The appropriate TBSA scoring for a left forearm burn according to the Rule of Nines is:
a) 4.5%
b) 9.0%
c) 18.0%
d) 2.5%
73. The second stage of labor starts once the cervix is fully dilated and ends with the delivery of the baby. Which stage is this?
a) First stage
b) Second stage
c) Third stage
d) Fourth stage
74. In the case of a first pregnancy, the first stage of labor lasts for:
a) 6-10 hours
b) 10-12 hours
c) 12-14 hours
d) 16-18 hours
75. APGAR scores are recorded at:
a) 1 and 2 minutes
b) 1 and 3 minutes
c) 1 and 4 minutes
d) 1 and 5 minutes
76. Which one is a symptom?
a) Skin condition
b) Pupil size and reactivity
c) Vertigo
d) Level of consciousness
77. Who should the patient's information be shared with?
a) Bystanders
b) Media
c) Relatives
d) None
78. It is very unlikely to deliver the baby in the case of:
a) Cephalic position
b) Breech position
c) Prolapsed cord
d) Cord around the neck
79. Sudden episodes of uncontrolled electrical impulses in the brain are called:
a) Fibrillation
b) Pulseless electrical activity
c) Seizures
d) Electrical conduction
80. Pooling of blood in dependent parts of the body is a sign of:
a) Clinical death
b) Biological death
c) In-hospital death
d) Out-of-hospital death
81. Signs & symptoms of life-threatening asthma in children are, except:
a) Cyanosis
b) Poor respiratory effort
c) Hypotension
d) Too breathless to talk or feel
82. When checking the pulse in an unresponsive child, which artery is preferred?
a) Carotid artery
b) Radial artery
c) Femoral artery
d) Brachial artery
83. Assist the child with asthma by giving how many puffs of a salbutamol inhaler?
a) 1 puff
b) 2 puffs
c) 3 puffs
d) 4 puffs
84. Blistered, moist skin with intense pain is found in which type of burn?
a) Superficial burn
b) Partial thickness burn
c) Mild thickness burn
d) Full thickness burn
85. For a 15-year-old patient experiencing chest pain without a GIT ulcer and bleeding disorder, the recommended dose of Aspirin (Acetylsalicylic acid) is:
a) 200 mg
b) 300 mg
c) 600 mg
d) None of the above
86. Which mnemonic is used to assess medical chest pain?
a) ABCD
b) TILE
c) SOCRATES
d) None of the above
87. A 30-year-old conscious patient is presenting with drowsiness, confusion, and low blood glucose levels. The ideal management for this patient is:
a) 5 mg glucose gel orally
b) 10 mg glucose gel orally
c) 5 G glucose gel orally
d) 10 G glucose gel orally
88. In infants, where should the defibrillator pads be applied?
a) One pad on the mid-sternum and one between the scapulae
b) One pad on the chest and one on the back
c) One pad on the upper abdomen and one on the lower abdomen
d) One pad on the left side and one on the right side
89. Which of the following are infectious diseases, except:
a) Pulmonary Tuberculosis
b) Asthma
c) Meningitis
d) Pneumonia
1. If the umbilical cord is pulsating, apply three clamps and cut the umbilical cord between:
a) 4-6 inches
b) 6-8 inches
c) 4-8 inches
d) None of the above
2. In case of a full-term pregnant lady, where should you perform deeper chest compressions on?
a) Lower half of the sternum
b) Mid of the sternum
c) Upper half of the sternum
d) Tilt left side & on the right-side ribs cage
3. Which of the following is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest?
a) Pooling of blood in dependent parts
b) Acidosis
c) Cardiac tamponade
d) Mortal wounds
4. Mr. Kamran is diagnosed with carbon monoxide poisoning, and the pulse oximeter is displaying 99% saturation. The best recommendation to supply oxygen is:
a) Non-rebreather Mask
b) Venturi Mask
c) Nasal Cannula
d) Simple Oxygen Mask
5. You find a patient with severe respiratory distress in the tripod position, leaning forward with wheezing sounds and struggling to exhale. This condition is known as:
a) Congestive heart failure
b) Stridor
c) Asthma
d) Lung fibrosis
6. While using an advanced airway, how many breaths per minute should be provided asynchrony with chest compressions?
a) 6-8 breaths/minute
b) 8-10 breaths/minute
c) 10-12 breaths/minute
d) 12-20 breaths/minute
7. On an extremely hot sunny day, a laborer working with a body temperature of 40°C and flushed dry skin, what is your diagnosis?
a) Heat stroke
b) Heat exhaustion
c) Heat cramps
d) Hypothermia
8. When responding to an unresponsive patient in a water rescue emergency with no pulse, breathless, and their body stiffened with decomposition, what should be your next action?
a) Wait for the police
b) Provide immediate resuscitation
c) Evacuate the lungs and transfer to the hospital
d) Deliver oxygen to the patient