Interactive MCQs
1. High body temperature with flushed dry skin is found in:
A) Heat exhaustion
B) Heat stroke
C) Heat cramps
D) Hypothermia
2. The size of suction catheter should be taken:
A) From corner of mouth to ear lobe
B) From corner of the mouth to angle of the jaw
C) Incisor to angle of the jaw
D) Incisor to ear lobe
3. Sign of a stroke (CVA) include:
A) Chest pain
B) High Blood Pressure, high lipids, headache
C) Ankle swelling, dizziness
D) Speech difficulties, arm weakness
4. Which is a sign/symptom of shock:
A) High blood pressure
B) Rapid weak pulse
C) High grade fever
D) Old age
5. Alveoli are surrounded by:
A) Capillaries
B) Veins
C) Nerves
D) Aorta
6. Blood consists of:
A) Supersession cells and plasma
B) Plasma, red blood cells, white cells, and platelets
C) Hemoglobin, leukocytes, plastin platelets
D) Plasma, lipids, and proteins
7. When you suspect a trauma incident, the correct method to open the patient's airway is:
A) Jaw-thrust manoeuvre
B) Head-tilt chin lift
C) A & B
D) Tongue jaw lift
8. Before drug administration, verify:
A) Manufacturing date
B) Brand
C) Expiry date
D) Opened seal
9. Labour before 37 weeks is called:
A) Pre term
B) Normal
C) Complicated
D) Post term
10. Penetrating trauma to the eye should be treated by:
A) Quickly and carefully removing the penetrating object
B) Remove the object if it is less than 2 mm in diameter
C) Securing the penetrating object in place
D) Pull out the object and control bleeding
11. If using a Non-rebreather mask, flow rate should be:
A) 1-6 LPM
B) 25-45 LPM
C) 10-15 LPM
D) 12-15 LPM
12. Chest compressions on an adult should be performed over:
A) Lower half of the sternum
B) Upper half of the sternum
C) Upper half of the xiphoid process
D) Lower half of xiphoid process
13. What is the purpose of checking capillary refill before and after splinting?
A) To check pain
B) To check circulation
C) To check neurogenic function
D) To check tenderness
14. In infant patients, do not suction longer than:
A) 15 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 5 seconds
D) 2 seconds
15. The most common cause of upper airway obstruction in an unresponsive patient is:
A) A flaccid tongue
B) False teeth
C) A foreign body
D) Vomit matter
16. The most common cause of AED failure is:
A) Poor AED maintenance, especially battery failure
B) Improper positioning of the defibrillation pads on the patient's chest
C) Interference from other patient monitoring equipment
D) Ventilation of the patient prior to delivering shock
17. The finger placement for chest compression for an infant is:
A) Just below the nipple line
B) At the midline of the chest
C) Over the breastbone
D) Just over the belly button
18. Hypothermia is best treated by:
A) Passive rewarming
B) Application of dry heat
C) Application of alcohol rub
D) Forced air heating
19. A patient with a suspected spinal injury who is lying prone, should be:
A) Immediately rolled onto their side
B) Rolled over using a log roll technique
C) Left lying prone without movement
D) Moved into the seated position
20. A tension pneumothorax is indicated by all of the following except:
A) Tracheal deviation
B) Hypotension
C) Jugular vein distension
D) Wheezing
21. When performing CPR on a child, the compression depth should be:
A) One third the depth of the chest
B) At least 2 inches deep
C) One half the depth of the chest
D) 1 inch deep
22. The most important element in controlling bleeding from an open wound is:
A) Direct pressure
B) Elevation
C) Ice pack
D) Tourniquet
23. In case of hypoglycemia in a conscious patient, you should:
A) Administer oral glucose
B) Administer insulin
C) Provide water
D) Perform chest compressions
24. Which of the following is a sign of a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis)?
A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Swelling of the lips and throat
C) Sweating
D) Fatigue
25. A patient is found unconscious and not breathing, what should be your first step?
A) Check the pulse
B) Begin chest compressions
C) Call for help
D) Check for a heartbeat
26. When you encounter a patient with a fractured femur, you should:
A) Immobilize with a splint
B) Immobilize and support the injured leg
C) Apply pressure to control bleeding
D) Leave the leg in the position found
27. The primary treatment for an unconscious choking adult patient is:
A) Abdominal thrusts and back blows
B) Back blows
C) CPR
D) Finger sweep
28. In a patient with a suspected spinal injury, how should the head be positioned?
A) Tilted slightly forward
B) In a neutral position
C) Turned to the side
D) Hyperextended
29. What is the best way to clear an airway obstruction in an infant?
A) Back blows and chest thrusts
B) Abdominal thrusts
C) Finger sweep
D) Heimlich maneuver
30. What is the initial management for a patient with anaphylaxis?
A) Administer antihistamines
B) Administer epinephrine
C) Apply ice packs
D) Provide oxygen
31. The goal of CPR is to:
A) Revive the patient immediately
B) Maintain circulation and breathing until professional help arrives
C) Stabilize the patient in the first 10 minutes
D) Prevent all injuries
32. The correct rate for chest compressions in CPR for an adult is:
A) 60-80 per minute
B) 100-120 per minute
C) 80-100 per minute
D) 120-140 per minute
33. In which situation should you never attempt to remove a foreign body from the eye?
A) When the foreign object is deeply embedded
B) If the patient is conscious
C) When the foreign object is a small piece of dust
D) When the patient has vision impairment
34. The signs and symptoms of a stroke (CVA) include all except:
A) Sudden numbness or weakness in the face, arm, or leg
B) Sudden confusion or trouble speaking
C) Sudden dizziness with a headache
D) Sudden trouble seeing in one or both eyes
35. What is the correct management for a patient experiencing a seizure?
A) Restrain the patient
B) Protect the patient from injury and monitor the airway
C) Administer oxygen
D) Give the patient water
36. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a heart attack?
A) Chest pain or discomfort
B) Sudden leg cramps
C) Shortness of breath
D) Pain in the neck, back, or jaw
37. The correct method to treat a thermal burn is:
A) Cool the burn with running water for at least 10 minutes
B) Apply ice directly to the burn
C) Cover the burn with butter or oil
D) Wrap the burn in a wet cloth
38. When you perform CPR on an infant, the correct depth for chest compressions is:
A) One-third the depth of the chest
B) One and a half inches
C) Two inches
D) At least 3 inches
39. What is the correct action when a patient is choking and cannot breathe, cough, or speak?
A) Perform abdominal thrusts and back blows
B) Give back blows
C) Perform chest compressions
D) Perform a finger sweep
40. The first priority in caring for a patient with a head injury is:
A) To assess for signs of a concussion
B) To maintain an open airway
C) To apply a bandage to the wound
D) To check for bleeding
41. Which of the following should you NOT do when treating a patient with a suspected spinal injury?
A) Move the patient unless absolutely necessary
B) Keep the patient still and call for emergency help
C) Stabilize the head and neck
D) Provide oxygen if available
42. When performing CPR on an adult, you should:
A) Deliver 10 compressions for every 2 breaths
B) Deliver 30 compressions for every 2 breaths
C) Perform compressions at a rate of 60 per minute
D) Perform compressions at a rate of 100 per minute
43. The proper response to a patient experiencing a stroke is:
A) Call 911 and note the time the symptoms started
B) Wait for the symptoms to resolve before calling for help
C) Provide fluids to the patient
D) Attempt to administer aspirin
44. The Heimlich maneuver is used to treat:
A) Airway obstruction
B) Bleeding
C) Heart attack
D) Stroke
45. A person with a puncture wound should receive:
A) Tetanus shot
B) Application of pressure to control bleeding
C) An ice pack to reduce swelling
D) A burn dressing
46. When should you NOT perform CPR?
A) When the person is not breathing
B) When the person has obvious signs of life
C) When the person is unconscious
D) When the person is a child
47. The correct treatment for a patient with a nosebleed is:
A) Pinch the nostrils together and lean forward
B) Tilt the head back
C) Apply a cold compress to the back of the neck
D) Pack the nostrils with cotton
48. If a person is having a severe allergic reaction, the first step in treatment is:
A) Administer epinephrine
B) Apply a cold compress to the area
C) Give antihistamines
D) Lay the person down and raise their legs
49. Which of the following is NOT a sign of hypothermia?
A) Shivering
B) Rapid heartbeat
C) Slurred speech
D) Confusion
50. When should you perform chest compressions for an infant?
A) When the baby is breathing but unresponsive
B) When the baby is not breathing and unresponsive
C) When the baby is awake but weak
D) When the baby is coughing forcefully
Early manifestation of the systemic effects of a large thermal injury is hypovolemic shock due to the following except:
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Increased vascular resistance
C) Decreased vascular resistance
D) Rhabdomyolysis
Major burns have three distinct zones of injury that usually appear in a bull's-eye pattern. These are the following except:
A) Zone of coagulation
B) Zone of stasis
C) Zone of hypoxemia
D) Zone of hyperaemia
Chest compressions on an adult should be performed over the:
A) Lower half of the sternum
B) Upper half of the sternum
C) Upper half of the xiphoid process
D) Lower half of xiphoid process
The most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation is:
A) CPR
B) Defibrillation
C) Early use of airway adjuncts
D) Early treatment by advanced life support personnel
Following the delivery of the first shock in a cardiac arrest situation, the AED will next:
A) Advise a second shock
B) Reanalyze the cardiac rhythm
C) Advise the AED operator to check the pulse
D) Advise the AED operator to start CPR
You are treating a victim of cardiac arrest with an AED. You have powered up the AED, attached the electrode pads, and it is analyzing. The AED has charged and gives the "shock indicated" voice prompt. Your next step is to:
A) Push the shock button
B) Clear the patient
C) Commence CPR
D) Check pulse
1. Synovial joints are freely moving joints. Which is an example of a synovial joint?
A) Cervical
B) Elbow
C) Shoulder
D) All of the above
2. A patient has Dyspnea. The best recommended position in an ambulance while transportation is:
A) Trendelenburg
B) Upright
C) Recumbent
D) Supine
3. The heart is located in the center of the chest cavity called:
A) Sternum
B) Peritoneum
C) Mediastinum
D) Pleural
4. There are ______ pair of spinal nerves:
A) 30
B) 31
C) 32
D) 33
5. Circulation of the brain is via:
A) Coronary circulation
B) Circle of Willis
C) Systemic circulation
D) All of the above
6. Rubbing skin of a patient in hypothermia may cause:
A) Vasodilation
B) Worsening hypothermia
C) Increased interstitial fluid
D) All of the above
7. If contaminated blood has been injected into the patient, it may spread infection:
A) Directly
B) Indirectly
C) By means of water
D) All of the above
8. When palpating the brachial pulse with an infant, the correct method is:
A) True
B) False
9.When you are called to assist a patient who is uncooperative and verbally abusive, you should:
A) Treat the patient in a similar manner to gain control of the situation
B) Leave the scene and go back in service
C) Threaten the patient with force if they don't calm down
D) Treat the patient with respect and call for law enforcement assistance
10. When using a bag-valve-mask device, the key finding to observe to ensure adequate ventilation is:
A) Three seconds between squeezing the bag and lifting the mask off the face
B) The patient's weight in kilograms
C) Good chest rise and fall
D) The location of the patient's cricoid cartilage
11. A nasal cannula is meant to deliver oxygen concentrations of:
A) 2-6%
B) 4-8%
C) 8-15%
D) 24-44%
12. A 66-year-old female is in cardiac arrest and requires advanced airway management. Prior to inserting an airway tube, you should take standard precautions and then:
A) Oxygenate the patient with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen
B) Pre-ventilate at the rate of 51/min
C) Give two rescue breaths only
D) All of the above
13. Breathing is a ______ process:
A) Automatic
B) Involuntary
C) Voluntary
D) All of the above
14. A 6-year-old boy can be given rescue breaths via:
A) Mouth-to-mouth
B) Mouth-to-nose
C) Bag-valve-mask
D) All of the above
2. An oropharyngeal airway (OPA) is used:
A) As a one-size-fits-all piece of curved plastic inserted into the throat to maintain an open airway.
B) As a small rubber device inserted into the patient's nose and down into the throat to maintain an open airway.
C) As a convenient way to maintain an open airway in an unconscious patient.
D) As a simple way to provide oxygen to the body via oxygen tubing and a non-rebreather mask.
3. Obstructions of the airway and difficulty breathing can be caused by:
A) Increased production of bronchial mucus
B) Swelling of the bronchial tube mucosal lining cells
C) Spasm and constriction of bronchial muscles
D) All of the above
4. A high-pitched sound, indicating upper airway obstruction, is called:
A) Stridor
5. If you hear abnormal breathing sounds, it may be due to:
A) Wheezing
B) Stridor
C) Rhonchi
D) All of above
6. Delivery of oxygen with high inflation pressure may lead to:
A) Gastric distension
B) Vomiting
C) Air entering the lungs
D) All of the above
7. A patient developing early stages of hypoxia may exhibit:
A) Cyanosis
B) Restlessness
C) A weak pulse
D) A pulse oximeter reading below 80%
8. True or False: It is appropriate to ask casualties to walk in a multiple casualties incident.
A) True
B) False
9. A 45-year-old man is having chest discomfort. After placing him in his position of comfort, your next action should be:
A) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 6 L/min
B) Ventilate with a non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
C) Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
D) Ventilate the patient with a bag-valve mask at 15 L/min
10. In respiratory arrest of a 50-year-old man, manage via:
A) 2 rescue breaths
B) 2 effective breaths in 5 attempts
C) Ventilate at 10 L/min for 10 minutes
D) Administer oxygen until breathing is restored
11. According to Dr. Kubler-Ross, the stage of the grieving process identified by the open expression of grief, hopelessness, and the desire to die is:
A) Depression
12. Never share patient information with:
A) Bystanders
B) Relatives
C) Media
D) All of the above
13. Antibiotics are used to treat:
A) Bacterial infections
B) Viral infections
C) Both
D) None
14. What ratio should 2-person CPR on a child be done at?
A) 30:2
B) 15:2
C) 30:5
D) 15:5
15. What is the preferred position for a patient in hypovolemic shock?
A) Supine with legs elevated
B) Upright on trolley
C) Trendelenburg position
D) Recumbent position
16. What things are necessary to record after reaching the scene of an incident?
A) Position of the patient's body
B) Nature of the scene
C) Time of incident
D) Suspected injuries
E) Mechanism of injury
17. Pain history of the patient is obtained via the generally used mnemonic:
A) SAMPLE
B) SOCRATES
C) ABCDE
D) All of the above
18. Sphygmomanometer is used to measure:
A) Blood pressure, not oxygen saturation.
19. Always discard contaminated gloves in:
A) Any items near the patient
B) A designated disposal box
C) All of the above
20. An oropharyngeal airway (OPA) is used for:
A) Maintaining an open airway in an unconscious patient.
21. Pads placement of AED can be:
A) Antero-posterior
B) Bi-axillary
C) Posterior-lateral
D) All of the above
22. Normal physiological oxygen saturation of a 50-year-old patient should be:
A) 80-85%
B) 87-91%
C) 94-98%
D) 100%
23. If the systolic BP is less than 90mmHg, nitroglycerin should not be prescribed to the patient.
A) True
24. Entonox effects include:
A) Pain reliever
B) Increase heart rate in arrest
C) Bronchodilator
D) All of the above
25. Pulse oximeter may give wrong readings due to:
A) Poor blood perfusion
B) Nail paint on patient's nails
C) Bright ambulance light
D) All of the above
26. In unconscious patients, medication may be given by all routes except:
A) Oral route
27. When treating a 50-year-old man with chest pain, radiating to the jaw, shortness of breath, and active GIT ulcer, immediately:
A) Give 300 mg aspirin dispersed in water
B) Transport to the hospital in comfort
C) Start CPR
D) All of the above
28. If you find a fallen patient with bleeding, unconscious with some powder sprinkled over them, immediate management would be:
A) Manage bleeding
B) Elevate extremity immediately
C) Apply pressure dressing
D) None of the above
29. Pupil reactivity in head injury may show:
A) One constricted, one dilated
B) Both constricted
C) Both dilated
D) Both fixed and dilated
30. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) can be affected by:
A) Sedative drugs
B) All of these
C) Insertion of endotracheal tube (ETT)