1. SpO2 is a measurement of how much oxygen and CO2 is being carried in the blood.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
2. Because EMTs wear protective gloves while dealing with patients, hand washing is not essential immediately after each call.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
3. Getting permission from a competent adult patient, who can make a decision before any intervention, is called valid consent.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
4. Sudden and temporary changes in the mental state due to massive electrical discharges in the brain are called seizures.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
5. In a heart attack, pain persists, unlike angina which goes away in 5-10 minutes.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
6. Atherosclerosis may cause arteries to narrow.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
7. In the case of a head injury, open the airway by using the head tilt-chin lift technique.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
8. Fibrillation is the passage of electric current through the heart.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
9. It is appropriate to commence resuscitation with obvious mortal wounds.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
10. There are two pacemakers in the heart, the SA node and AV node; the SA node is the main pacemaker.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
11. Skin covers the entire body and has three functions: protection, temperature regulation, and receiving information from the outside.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
12. Flush chemical burns in the eyes with water for at least 10 minutes.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
13. Begin CPR in infants if the pulse is less than 60/min.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
14. A sprain is an injury caused by overextension of tendon muscles.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
15. If a choking patient is coughing, performing abdominal thrusts is a false statement.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
16. In the case of an unstable patient, reassess every 10 minutes.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
17. A patient with a head injury might have unequal pupils.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
18. The left ventricle pumps blood into the pulmonary artery.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
19. GTN is contraindicated if blood pressure is below 90 mmHg.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
20. Systole is the relaxation of the heart.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
21. The most important factors in determining survival from cardiac arrest are:
A. Early CPR and early defibrillation
B. Call for help and start CPR
C. Recognition of risk factors
D. Recognition of warning signs
22. Chest compressions on an adult should be performed over the:
A. Lower half of the sternum
B. Upper half of the sternum
C. Upper half of the xiphoid process
D. Lower half of the xiphoid process
23. Oxygen supply via a non-rebreather mask is up to:
A. 44%
B. 60%
C. 85%
D. 24%
24. Exchange of gases within the lungs is called:
A. Internal respiration
B. External respiration
C. Intracellular respiration
D. Breathing
25. Internal bleeding due to pelvic fracture can produce:
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Anaphylactic shock
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
26. Life-threatening bleeding is described as:
A. Catastrophic bleeding
B. Major bleeding
C. Moderate bleeding
D. Minor bleeding
27. Following the delivery of the first shock in a cardiac arrest situation, the AED will next:
A. Reanalyze the cardiac rhythm
B. Advise a second shock
C. Advise the AED operator to check the pulse
D. Advise the AED operator to start CPR
28. Indications of shock include:
A. All of the above
B. Increased heart rate
C. Increased respiratory rate
D. Pale, clammy skin
29. The leading cause of brain injury and disability in adults is:
A. Stroke
B. Seizures
C. Diabetes
D. All of the above
30. Signs and symptoms of heat stroke include all except:
A. Sweating
B. Dry skin
C. High body temperature
D. Flushed skin
31. Management of hypoglycemia includes:
A. Glucose gel
B. Insulin
C. N/S 0.9%
D. All of the above
32. In which diabetic emergency would you expect to find warm, red, dry skin?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
33. Hypothermia develops when body temperature drops below:
A. 35°C
B. 34°C
C. 36°C
D. 37°C
34. In the case of a snake bite, perform all except:
A. Provide emotional support
B. Make an incision and suck the venom
C. Immobilize the affected part
D. Transport to an appropriate facility
35. The anatomical structure where the trachea splits into two bronchi is called the:
A. Carina
B. Clavicular notch
C. Cricoid cartilage
D. Primary bronchus
36. During suction, never insert the tip of the suction catheter:
A. More than 2 inches
B. More than 3 inches
C. More than 4 inches
D. Further than you can see
37. You are treating a victim of cardiac arrest with an AED. You have powered up the AED, attached the electrode pads, and it is analyzing. The AED has charged and gives the "shock indicated" voice prompt. Your next step is to:
A. Push the shock button
B. Clear the patient
C. Commence CPR
D. Check pulse
38. The diaphragm is a part of the:
A. Respiratory system
B. Endocrine system
C. Skeletal system
D. Nervous system
39. The right ventricle sends blood to the:
A. Lungs
B. Body
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Brain
40. What is the purpose of checking capillary refill before and after splinting?
A. To check circulation
B. To check pain
C. To check neurogenic function
D. To check tenderness
41. Chest compressions on an adult should be performed over the:
A. Lower half of the sternum
B. Upper half of the sternum
C. Upper half of the xiphoid process
D. Lower half of the xiphoid process
42. The most frequent initial rhythm in sudden cardiac arrest is:
A. Asystole
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Sinus rhythm
D. None of the above
43. A 55-year-old woman is suddenly suffering from severe chest pain with shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea. What is the most likely cause of the condition?
A. Heart attack
B. Stroke
C. Seizure
D. Chest infection
44. Known effects of a drug that are not desired are called:
A. Side effects
B. Contraindications
C. KSAR
D. Pharmacokinetics
45. During a F.A.S.T. assessment, 'F' stands for:
A. Facial weakness
B. Facial droop
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
46. Signs of a stroke (CVA) include:
A. Chest pain
B. High blood pressure, high lipids, headache
C. Ankle swelling, dizziness
D. Speech difficulties, arm weakness
47. Side effects of salbutamol include all except:
A. Tachycardia
B. Tremors
C. Tachyarrhythmias
D. Transient hypotension
48. When performing single-rescue CPR on an adult, chest compressions should be delivered at a rate of:
A. 60 per minute
B. 80 per minute
C. 100 per minute
D. 120 per minute
49. The site for gaseous exchange in humans is:
A. Bronchi
B. Bronchiole
C. Secondary bronchus
D. Alveoli
50. In infant patients, do not suction longer than:
A. 15 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 5 seconds
D. 2 seconds
51. Hyperkalemia is an excess of:
A. Calcium
B. Magnesium
C. Potassium
D. CO2
52. Which of the following would be a closed injury?
A. Abrasion
B. Amputation
C. Avulsion
D. Hematoma
53. Organisms that cause infections such as viruses and bacteria are called:
A. Toxins
B. Antibodies
C. Antigens
D. Pathogens
54. The highest risk for responders using an AED is:
A. Removal of medical patches
B. Analyzing the heart rhythm
C. Ventilation with a pocket mask
D. Delivery of shock
55. Which of the following vessels does NOT carry blood back to the heart?
A. Superior vena cava
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Pulmonary vein
56. Arterial bleeding is characterized by:
A. Bright red
B. Bluish red
C. Pinkish
D. Purplish red
57. Chest pain due to partial blockage in the coronary arteries is called:
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Stroke
C. Arteriosclerosis
D. Angina
58. Which is a sign/symptom of shock?
A. High blood pressure
B. Rapid weak pulse
C. High-grade fever
D. Old age
59. Alveoli are surrounded by:
A. Capillaries
B. Veins
C. Nerves
D. Aorta
60. Blood consists of:
A. Supersession cells and plasma
B. Plasma, red blood cells, white cells, and platelets
C. Hemoglobin, leukocytes, plastin platelets
D. None of the above
61. When you suspect a trauma incident, the correct method to open the patient's airway is:
A. Jaw-thrust maneuver
B. Head-tilt chin-lift
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
62. The heart consists of:
A. 2 chambers
B. 6 chambers
C. 4 chambers
D. 5 chambers
63. The largest bone in the body is:
A. Humerus
B. Femur
C. Patella
D. Tibia
64. Before drug administration, verify:
A. Allergy
B. Contraindications
C. Expiry
D. All of the above
65. Which membrane surrounds each lung?
A. Pericardium
B. Pleura
C. Premium
D. Peritoneum
66. Personal protective equipment consists of the following except:
A. Goggles
B. Latex gloves
C. Personal mask
D. BVM
67. A condition in which a drug is being prescribed is called:
A. Indication
B. Contraindication
C. Side effects
D. None of the above
68. A colorless liquid that protects the brain and spinal cord is:
A. Pleural fluid
B. CSF
C. Acetic fluid
D. None of the above
69. Labor before 37 weeks is called:
A. Preterm
B. Normal
C. Complicated
D. Post-term
70. Nebulized drugs include:
A. Salbutamol
B. Acetaminophen
C. Aspirin
D. All of the above
71. The practitioner coordinating the log roll is positioned:
A. At the shoulders
B. At the feet
C. At the head
D. Observing
72. CSF stands for:
A. Cerebrospinal fluid
B. Cardiospinal fluid
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
73. The most common reason for shock in trauma patients is:
A. Tachycardia
B. Hemorrhage
C. Hypertension
D. Diaphoresis
74. How many distinct phases can be observed in people's reactions to death and dying?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
75. An injury where a body structure is completely detached from the body is called:
A. Avulsion
B. Amputation
C. Cavitation
D. Laceration
76. What percentage of plasma is in blood?
A. 60%
B. 45%
C. 40%
D. 55%
77. How many ventilations per minute are given to an adult with an advanced airway, asynchronous with chest compressions?
A. 10-12
B. 8-10
C. 12-20
D. 6-8
78. A sphygmomanometer should be applied to the:
A. Mouth
B. Arm
C. Ear
D. Head
79. You should assume all unresponsive trauma patients have:
A. Internal injury
B. Spinal injury
C. Head injury
D. Gag reflex
80. The "T" in OPQRST stands for:
A. Temperature
B. Tenderness
C. Transport
D. Time
81. The joint found in the shoulder is:
A. Ball-and-socket joint
B. Hinge joint
C. Fused joint
D. Gliding joint
82. The normal respiration rate for an adult is:
A. 8-10/min
B. 10-12/min
C. 12-16/min
D. 12-20/min
83. Bradycardia is a pulse below:
A. 50/min
B. 60/min
C. 100/min
D. 120/min
84. The normal route of Glyceryl Trinitrate is:
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intravenous
C. Intramuscular
D. Sublingual
85. The correct dose of aspirin to administer to a 65-year-old patient with chest pain (suspected MI) is:
A. 75 mg
B. 300 mg
C. 600 mg
D. 150 mg
86. A burn injury is caused by an interaction between energy and:
A. Molecular matter
B. Biological matter
C. Cellular matter
D. Pia matter
87. As an EMT treating a patient with a penetrating eye injury, you should:
A. Remove the object slowly and carefully
B. Secure the object in place
C. Remove the object if vision is not obstructed
D. Remove the object if it is less than 5 mm deep
88. A circumstance in which a drug should not be used because it could harm the patient is called:
A. Indication
B. Contraindication
C. Side effects
D. Adverse reaction
89. The maximum doses of salbutamol an EMT can assist in administering to an adult is:
A. 1 puff
B. 2 puffs
C. 3 puffs
D. 4 puffs
90. A common cause of seizures in children is:
A. Sudden increase in temperature
B. Vigorous exercise
C. Tantrum
D. Fracture
91. Entonox is a combination of O2 and NO in the ratio:
A. 60:40%
B. 50:50%
C. 70:30%
D. 55:45%
92. The international response duration for a Green 3 ambulance is:
A. 30 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 90 minutes
93. Hypoxia usually results in what skin color?
A. Black
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Blue
94. Pale, cool, and clammy skin with profuse sweating is found in:
A. Heat exhaustion
B. Heat stroke
C. Frostbite
D. Hypothermia
95. A contraindication for nitroglycerin is:
A. Asthma
B. Chest pain
C. High blood pressure
D. Use of Viagra
96. Capnography measures:
A. Peak expiratory flow
B. Pressure of arterial O2
C. End-tidal CO2
D. All of the above
97. Nitroglycerin will cause which of the following?
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Vasodilation
C. Bronchodilation
D. Bronchoconstriction
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