Interactive MCQs
1. The most important factors in determining survival from cardiac arrest are:
A) Early CPR and early Defibrillation
B) Call for help and start CPR
C) Recognition of risk factors
D) Recognition of warning signs
2. Chest compressions on an adult should be performed over the:
A) Lower half of the sternum
B) Upper half of the sternum
C) Upper half of the xiphoid process
D) Lower half of xiphoid process
3. The most frequent initial rhythm in sudden cardiac arrest is:
A) Asystole
B) Sinus rhythm
C) Ventricular tachycardia
D) Ventricular Fibrillation
4. The most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation is:
A) CPR
B) Defibrillation
C) Early use of airway adjuncts
D) Early treatment by advanced life support personnel
5. When using an automated external defibrillator (AED), the following statement is correct:
A) Always shock in sets of three
B) The defibrillator should only be used when the patient is unresponsive and not breathing
C) Continue shocking until the patient converts to a perfusing rhythm
D) A pulse should be assessed after each shock and CPR performed for two minutes
6. You are assessing a 42-year-old woman and note that her face has turned blue and she is not breathing. Your next step is to:
A) Attach the AED and start the shock cycle
B) Open the airway and initiate oxygen therapy
C) Open the airway and initiate rescue breathing
D) Attach the AED and monitor the patient's rhythm
7. Following the delivery of the first shock in a cardiac arrest situation, the AED will next:
A) Advise a second shock
B) Reanalyze the cardiac rhythm
C) Advise the AED operator to check the pulse
D) Advise the AED operator to start CPR
8. A 55-year-old man suddenly experiences severe substernal chest pressure with shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea. The discomfort travels to his jaw and down his left arm. What is the most likely cause of his condition?
A) Stroke
B) Seizure
C) Heart Attack
D) Respiratory arrest
9. You are treating a victim of cardiac arrest with an AED. You have powered up the AED, attached the electrode pads, and it is analyzing. The AED has charged and gives the "shock indicated" voice prompt. Your next step is to:
A) Push the shock button
B) Clear the patient
C) Commence CPR
D) Check pulse
10. When performing single-rescue CPR on an adult, chest compressions should be delivered at a rate of:
A) 60 per minute
B) 80 per minute
C) 100 per minute
D) 120 per minute
11. Signs of a stroke (CVA) include:
A) Chest pain, breathlessness & arm pain
B) High blood pressure, high cholesterol & headache
C) Ankle swelling, dizziness & shortness of breath
D) Speech difficulties, facial paralysis & arm weakness
12. The compression rate per minute for infant CPR is:
A) 100 per minute
B) 80 per minute
C) 120 per minute
D) 150 per minute
13. The most common cause of upper airway obstruction in an unresponsive patient is:
A) A flaccid tongue
B) False teeth
C) Vomit matter
D) None of these
14. For a patient with a partial foreign body airway obstruction, the responder should:
A) Encourage the patient to cough
B) Deliver up to five back blows
C) Deliver up to five abdominal thrusts
D) Encourage the patient to take deep breaths
15. The dose of aspirin for a patient with a suspected heart attack is:
A) 100 mg
B) 200 mg
C) 300 mg
D) 400 mg
16. The most common cause of AED failure is:
A) Poor AED maintenance, especially battery failure
B) Improper positioning of the defibrillation pads on the patient's chest
C) Interference from other patient monitoring equipment
D) Ventilation of the patient prior to delivering shock
17. Defibrillation is:
A) The delivery of an electric shock through the patient's heart
B) Ineffective contraction of the upper chambers of the heart
C) Ineffective contraction of the lower chambers of the heart
D) Death of the heart muscle due to an inadequate blood supply
18. The finger placement for chest compression for an infant is:
A) Just below the nipple line
B) Just above the nipple line
C) Over the xiphoid process
D) Over the sternal notch
19. In the 2-rescuer Adult CPR situation, the ratio of compressions to ventilation is:
A) 30:2
B) 25:1
C) 15:1
D) 30:1
20. When checking the pulse in an infant, you should check the:
A) Carotid Artery
B) Radial Artery
C) Femoral Artery
D) Brachial Artery
26. The model preferred while handover of the patient is:
A) STABLE
B) ATMIST
27. In human anatomical position, the head is:
A) Anterior
B) Posterior
C) Superior
D) Inferior
28. In primary survey, the rapid examination should take:
A) 30-60 seconds
B) 60-90 seconds
C) 30-90 seconds
D) 2 minutes
29. A sprain involves the stretching of the:
A) Tendons
B) Ligaments
C) Muscles
D) None of these
30. An injury to the back of the thigh is considered to be on the:
A) Anterior
B) Posterior
C) Inferior
D) Superior
31. Excessive cooling of a burn could result in which of the following:
A) Hypothermia
B) Hyperthermia
C) Infection
D) None of these
32. The largest blood vessel in the body is the:
A) Pulmonary artery
B) Inferior vena cava
C) Pulmonary vein
D) Aorta
33. What is the most important factor in determining survival from cardiac arrest?
A) Early CPR
B) Early Defibrillation
C) Call for help & AED
D) Both A & B
34. There are ____ pairs of false ribs.
A) 4
B) 5
C) 7
D) 12
35. The second stage of labor ends with the delivery of the baby:
A) True
B) False
36. During triage at an MCI, a cardiac arrest would be:
A) Green
B) Yellow
C) Red
D) None of these
37. When clamping the umbilical cord, the second clamp is placed:
A) 3 inches from the first clamp toward the baby.
B) 6 inches from the first clamp toward the baby.
C) 7 inches from the first clamp toward the baby.
D) None of these
38. First-degree burns displaying redness and blisters, burns to the epidermis and dermis, and involve intense pain:
A) True
B) False
39. Negligence occurs where duty of care is:
A) Happened
B) Proven
C) Occurred and unreasonable harm may occur.
D) None of these
40. An adult patient with mental capacity must give consent:
A) Implied consent
B) Valid consent
C) Expressed consent
D) Breached consent
41. Abduction is the movement of the joint moving:
A) Towards the midline
B) Away from the midline
C) In a circular motion
D) None of these
42. The joint in the shoulder is a:
A) Ball & socket
B) Hinge
C) Fused
D) Gliding
43. Which of the following is the common cause of seizures in children?
A) Sudden increase in temperature
B) Vigorous exercises
C) Fractures
D) Tantrum
44. Pale, cool, and clammy skin with profuse sweating is found in:
A) Heat exhaustion
B) Heat stroke
C) Frostbite
D) Hypothermia
45. The leading cause of brain injury and disability in adults is:
A) Stroke
B) Diabetes
C) Seizures
D) Myocardial infarction (MI)
46. The thorax includes all of the following except:
A) Ribs
B) Vertebrae
C) Sternum
D) Pelvic
47. One of the following is not a cardiovascular emergency:
A) Angina
B) Hypertension
C) Stroke
D) MI
48. The most unprotected cavity is the:
A) Cranial
B) Abdominal
C) Thoracic
D) Pelvic
49. Hypoxia usually occurs in what color:
A) Black
B) Red
C) Blue
D) Yellow
50. Asthma generally produces:
A) Crackles
B) Wheezing
C) Rhonchi
D) Crepitation
6. Personal protective equipment consists of the following except:
a. Goggles
b. Latex gloves
c. Personal mask
d. BVM
67. A condition in which a drug is being prescribed:
a. Indication
b. Contraindication
c. Side Effects
d. None of the above
68. A colorless liquid which protects the brain & spinal cord:
a. Pleural fluid
b. Acetic fluid
c. CSF
d. None of the above
69. Labor before 37 weeks is called?
a. Pre-term
b. Normal
c. Complicated
d. Post-term
70. Nebulized drug includes:
a. Salbutamol
b. Acetaminophen
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
71. The practitioner coordinating the log roll:
a. At the shoulders
b. At the feet
c. At the head
d. Observing
72. CSF stands for:
a. Cerebrospinal fluid
b. Aspirin
c. Both a & b
d. All of the above
73. What is the most common reason for shock in trauma patients:
a. Tachycardia
b. Hemorrhage
c. Hypertension
d. Diaphoresis
74. How many distinct phases can be observed in people's reaction to death & dying?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
75. What is the term for an injury when a body structure is totally detached from the body?
a. Avulsions
b. Amputation
c. Cavitation
d. Laceration
76. What percentage of plasma in blood:
a. 60%
b. 45%
c. 40%
d. 55%
77. How many ventilations per minute are given to an adult with an advanced airway during chest compressions?
a. 10-12
b. 8-10
c. 12-20
d. 6-8
78. A sphygmomanometer should be applied to the:
a. Mouth
b. Ear
c. Arm
d. Head
79. You should assume that all unresponsive trauma patients have:
a. Internal injury
b. Spinal injury
c. Head injury
d. Gag reflex
80. The "T" in OPQRST stands for:
a. Temperature
b. Tenderness
c. Transport
d. Time
81. The joint found in the shoulder is:
a. Ball & socket joint
b. Hinge
c. Fused
d. Gliding
82. What is the normal respiration rate for an adult?
a. 8-10/min
b. 10-12/min
c. 12-16/min
d. 12-20/min
83. Bradycardia is pulse below:
a. 50/min
b. 60/min
c. 100/min
d. 120/min
84. The normal route of Glyceryl Trinitrate:
a. Subcutaneous
b. Intravenous
c. Intramuscular (IM)
d. Sublingual
85. The correct dose of aspirin to administer to a 65-year-old patient with chest pain (suspected MI):
a. 75mg
b. 300mg
c. 600mg
d. 150mg
86. A burn injury is caused by an interaction between energy and:
a. Molecular matter
b. Biological matter
c. Cellular matter
d. Pia matter
87. An EMT treating a patient with a penetrating eye injury should:
a. Remove the object slowly and carefully
b. Secure the object in place
c. Remove the object if vision is not obstructed
d. Remove the object if it is less than 5mm deep
88. A circumstance in which a drug should not be used because it could cause harm to the patient is called:
a. Indication
b. Contraindication
c. Side effects
d. Adverse reaction
89. The maximum doses of salbutamol an EMT can assist in administering to an adult is:
a. 1 Puff
b. 2 Puffs
c. 3 Puffs
d. 4 Puffs
90. Which of the following is a common cause of seizures in children?
a. Sudden increase in temperature
b. Vigorous exercises
c. Tantrum
d. Fracture
91. Entonox is a combination of O2 & NO:
a. 60:40%
b. 70:30%
c. 50:50%
d. 55:45%
92. The international response time for the green 3 ambulance:
a. 30 minutes
b. 45 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 90 minutes
93. Hypoxia usually results in what color skin?
a. Black
b. Red
c. Yellow
d. Blue
94. Pale, cool & clammy skin with profuse sweating is found in:
a. Heat exhaustion
b. Heat stroke
c. Frostbite
d. Hypothermia
95. A contraindication for nitroglycerin is:
a. Asthma
b. Chest pain
c. High BP
d. Viagra
96. Capnography is the measurement of:
a. Peak expiratory flow
b. Pressure of arterial O2
c. End tidal CO2
d. All of the above
97. Nitroglycerin will cause which of the following:
a. Vasoconstriction
b. Vasodilation
c. Bronchoconstriction
d. Bronchodilation